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The CISA certification exam is designed to test your knowledge and skills in the areas of information systems auditing, control, and security. CISA exam covers four domains: Information Systems Auditing Process, Governance and Management of IT, Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation, and Information Systems Operations, Maintenance and Service Management. CISA exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that are to be completed within a four-hour time frame.
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The CISA exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that are meant to test a candidate's knowledge of information systems auditing, control, and security. CISA exam is divided into five domains: Governance and Management of IT, Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation, Information Systems Operations, Maintenance and Service Management, Protection of Information Assets. CISA exam is designed to be challenging, and candidates are required to score at least 450 out of 800 to pass.
NEW QUESTION # 635
Which of the following is the MOST effective type of antivirus software?
- A. Scanners
- B. Active monitors
- C. integrity checkers
- D. Vaccines
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integrity checkers compute a binary number on a known virus-free program that is then stored in a database file. This number is called a cyclical redundancy check (CRC). When that program is called to execute, the checker computes the CRC on the program about to be executed and compares it to the number in the database. A match means no infection; a mismatch means that a change in the program has occurred. A change in the program could mean a virus. Scanners look for sequences of bits called signatures that are typical of virus programs. They examine memory, disk boot sectors, executables and command files for bit patterns that match a known virus. Therefore, scanners need to be updated periodically to remain effective. Active monitors interpret DOS and ROM basic input-output system (BIOS) calls, looking for virus-like actions.
Active monitors can be misleading, because they cannot distinguish between a user request and a program or virus request. As a result, users are asked to confirm actions like formatting a disk or deleting a file or set of files. Vaccines are known to be good antivirus software. However, they also need to be updated periodically to remain effective.
NEW QUESTION # 636
A hot site should be implemented as a recovery strategy when the:
- A. recovery point objective (RPO) is high.
- B. disaster tolerance is low.
- C. disaster tolerance is high.
- D. recovery time objective (RTO) is high.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Disaster tolerance is the time gap during which the business can accept nonavailability of IT facilities. If this
time gap is low, recovery strategies that can be implemented within a short period of time, such as a hot
site, should be used. The RPO is the earliest point in time at which it is acceptable to recover the data. A
high RPO means that the process can wait for a longer time. In such cases, other recovery alternatives,
such as warm or cold sites, should be considered. A high RTO means that additional time would be
available for the recovery strategy, thus making other recovery alternatives-such as warm or cold sites-
viable alternatives.
NEW QUESTION # 637
What is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk of a phishing attack?
- A. User education
- B. Strong authentication
- C. Assess web site security
- D. implement an intrusion detection system (IDS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Phishing attacks can be mounted in various ways; intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and strong authentication cannot mitigate most types of phishing attacks. Assessing web site security does not mitigate the risk. Phishing uses a server masqueradingas a legitimate server. The best way to mitigate the risk of phishing is to educate users to take caution with suspicious internet communications and not to trust them until verified. Users require adequate training to recognize suspicious web pagesand e-mail.
NEW QUESTION # 638
Which of the following could an IS auditor recommend to improve the estimated resources required in system development?
- A. Prototyping
- B. Business areas involvement
- C. Function point analysis
- D. CASE tools
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 639
Which of the following functionality is NOT performed by the application layer of a TCP/IP model?
- A. Dialog management
- B. Print service, application services
- C. Data encryption and compression
- D. End-to-end connection
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The word NOT is the keyword used in the question, You need to find out a functionality which is not performed by application layer of a TCP/IP model.
End-to-end connection is the Transport layer functionality in TCP/IP model.
For your exam you should know below information about TCP/IP model:
Network Models
Layer 4. Application Layer
Application layer is the top most layer of four layer TCP/IP model. Application layer is present on the top of the Transport layer. Application layer defines TCP/IP application protocols and how host programs interface with Transport layer services to use the network.
Application layer includes all the higher-level protocols like DNS (Domain Naming System), HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), Telnet, SSH, FTP (File Transfer Protocol), TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) , DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), X Windows, RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) etc.
Layer 3. Transport Layer
Transport Layer is the third layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of the Transport layer is between Application layer and Internet layer. The purpose of Transport layer is to permit devices on the source and destination hosts to carry on a conversation. Transport layer defines the level of service and status of the connection used when transporting data.
The main protocols included at Transport layer are TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol).
Layer 2. Internet Layer
Internet Layer is the second layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. The position of Internet layer is between Network Access Layer and Transport layer. Internet layer pack data into data packets known as IP datagram's, which contain source and destination address (logical address or IP address) information that is used to forward the datagram's between hosts and across networks. The Internet layer is also responsible for routing of IP datagram's.
Packet switching network depends upon a connectionless internetwork layer. This layer is known as Internet layer. Its job is to allow hosts to insert packets into any network and have them to deliver independently to the destination. At the destination side data packets may appear in a different order than they were sent. It is the job of the higher layers to rearrange them in order to deliver them to proper network applications operating at the Application layer.
The main protocols included at Internet layer are IP (Internet Protocol), ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) and IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol).
Layer 1. Network Access Layer
Network Access Layer is the first layer of the four layer TCP/IP model. Network Access Layer defines details of how data is physically sent through the network, including how bits are electrically or optically signaled by hardware devices that interface directly with a network medium, such as coaxial cable, optical fiber, or twisted pair copper wire.
The protocols included in Network Access Layer are Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay etc.
The most popular LAN architecture among those listed above is Ethernet. Ethernet uses an Access Method called CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection) to access the media, when Ethernet operates in a shared media. An Access Method determines how a host will place data on the medium.
IN CSMA/CD Access Method, every host has equal access to the medium and can place data on the wire when the wire is free from network traffic. When a host wants to place data on the wire, it will check the wire to find whether another host is already using the medium. If there is traffic already in the medium, the host will wait and if there is no traffic, it will place the data in the medium. But, if two systems place data on the medium at the same instance, they will collide with each other, destroying the data. If the data is destroyed during transmission, the data will need to be retransmitted. After collision, each host will wait for a small interval of time and again the data will be retransmitted.
Protocol Data Unit (PDU) :
Protocol Data Unit - PDU
The following answers are incorrect:
The other functionalities described in the options are performed by application layer in TCP/IP model.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 page number 272
NEW QUESTION # 640
Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective IT investment management?
- A. IT investments are mapped to specific business objectives
- B. IT investments are implemented and monitored following a system development life cycle (SDLC)
- C. The IT Investment budget is significantly below industry benchmarks
- D. Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined for each business requiring IT Investment
Answer: A
Explanation:
This means that the IT investments are aligned with the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they deliver value and benefits to the business. Mapping IT investments to specific business objectives can help ensure that the IT investments are relevant, justified, and measurable, and that they support the organization's mission and vision.
IT investments are implemented and monitored following a system development life cycle (SDLC) is an indication of effective IT project management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management.
The SDLC is a framework that guides the development and implementation of IT systems and applications, but it does not address the alignment, justification, or measurement of the IT investments.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined for each business requiring IT investment is an indication of effective IT performance management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management. KPIs are metrics that measure the outcomes and results of IT activities and processes, but they do not address the alignment, justification, or value of the IT investments.
The IT investment budget is significantly below industry benchmarks is not an indication of effective IT investment management, but rather of low IT spending. The IT investment budget should be based on the organization's needs and capabilities, and not on external comparisons. A low IT investment budget may indicate that the organization is underinvesting in IT, which could limit its potential for growth and innovation.
NEW QUESTION # 641
An IS auditor concludes that logging and monitoring mechanisms within an organization are ineffective because critical servers are not included within the central log repository. Which of the following audit procedures would have MOST likely identified this exception?
- A. Comparing a list of all servers from the directory server against a list of all servers present in the central log repository
- B. Inspecting a sample of alerts generated from the central log repository
- C. Comparing all servers included in the current central log repository with the listing used for the prior-year audit
- D. Inspecting a sample of alert settings configured in the central log repository
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The audit procedure that would have most likely identified the exception of critical servers not included in the central log repository is to compare a list of all servers from the directory server against a list of all servers present in the central log repository. This would allow the IS auditor to detect any discrepancies or omissions in the central log repository. The other audit procedures (A, C and D) would not be effective in identifying this exception, as they would only focus on the alerts generated, the alert settings configured, or the servers included in the previous year's audit, which may not reflect the current state of the central log repository.
References: IS Audit and Assurance Guideline 2202: Evidence Collection Techniques, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Logging and Monitoring
NEW QUESTION # 642
What is the PRIMARY benefit of using one-time passwords?
- A. Users do not have to memorize complex passwords
- B. Users cannot be locked out of an account
- C. An intercepted password cannot be reused
- D. Security for applications can be automated
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary benefit of using one-time passwords is that an intercepted password cannot be reused, as it is valid only for a single login session or transaction. One-time passwords enhance the security of authentication by preventing replay attacks or password guessing. The other options are not the primary benefits of using one-time passwords. Security for applications can be automated with or without one-time passwords. Users may still have to memorize complex passwords or use a device or software to generate one-time passwords. Users can still be locked out of an account if they enter an incorrect or expired one-time password. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.1
NEW QUESTION # 643
The BEST way to prevent fraudulent payments is to implement segregation of duties between payment processing and:
- A. check creation.
- B. payment approval.
- C. requisition creation.
- D. vendor setup.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 644
During the planning stage of a compliance audit, an IS auditor discovers that a bank's inventory of compliance requirements does not include recent regulatory changes related to managing data risk. What should the auditor do FIRST?
- A. Ask management why the regulatory changes have not been included.
- B. Report the missing regulatory updates to the chief information officer (CIO).
- C. Discuss potential regulatory issues with the legal department.
- D. Exclude recent regulatory changes from the audit scope.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 645
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing an IT strategy?
- A. Short and long-term plans for the enterprise IT architecture
- B. Alignment with overall business objectives
- C. Alignment with the IT investment portfolio
- D. IT key performance indicators based on business objectives
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 646
Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?
- A. Log monitoring
- B. Antivirus software
- C. Patch management
- D. Intrusion detection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Governance and Management of IT
NEW QUESTION # 647
IS auditor can BEST evaluate the business impact of system failures by:
- A. assessing user satisfaction levels.
- B. interviewing the security administrator
- C. analyzing equipment maintenance logs.
- D. reviewing system-generated logs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 648
Which of the following should be an IS auditor's PRIMARY focus when developing a risk-based IS audit program?
- A. Business processes
- B. Business plans
- C. IT strategic plans
- D. Portfolio management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Business processes should be the primary focus of an IS auditor when developing a risk-based IS audit program, because they represent the core activities and functions of the organization that support its objectives and goals. Business processes also involve the use of IT resources and systems that may pose risks to the organization's performance and compliance. A risk-based IS audit program should identify and assess the risks associated with the business processes and determine the appropriate audit scope and procedures to provide assurance on their effectiveness and efficiency. Portfolio management, business plans, and IT strategic plans are also relevant factors for developing a risk-based IS audit program, but they are not as important as business processes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 649
Which of the following applications has the MOST inherent risk and should be prioritized during audit planning?
- A. An onsite application that is unsupported
- B. An internally developed application
- C. A decommissioned legacy application
- D. An outsourced accounting application
Answer: D
Explanation:
An outsourced accounting application has the most inherent risk and should be prioritized during audit planning because it involves external parties, sensitive data, and complex transactions that are susceptible to material misstatement, error, or fraud12. An outsourced accounting application also requires more oversight and monitoring from the internal audit department to ensure compliance with the service level agreement and the organization's policies and standards3.
References
1: Inherent Risk: Definition, Examples, and 3 Types of Audit Risks 2: 3 Types of Audit Risk - Inherent, Control and Detection - Accountinguide 3: IS Audit Basics: The Core of IT Auditing
NEW QUESTION # 650
Which of the following network components is PRIMARILY set up to serve as a security measure by preventing unauthorized traffic between different segments of the network?
- A. VLANs
- B. Routers
- C. Layer 2 switches
- D. Firewalls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Firewall systems are the primary tool that enable an organization to prevent unauthorized access between networks. An organization may choose to deploy one or more systems that function as firewalls. Routers can filter packets based on parameters, such as source address, but are not primarily a security tool. Based on Media Access Control (MAC) addresses, layer 2 switches separate traffic in a port as different segments and without determining if it is authorized or unauthorized traffic. A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a functionality of some switches that allows them to switch the traffic between different ports as if they are in the same LAN. Nevertheless, they do not deal with authorized vs. unauthorized traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 651
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