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NEW QUESTION # 63
An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.
Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)
- A. 1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby
- B. 1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19
- C. aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x
- D. 1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length is the set of test cases represented by option D. Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that focuses on the values at the boundaries of an equivalence partition, such as the minimum and maximum values, or the values just above and below the boundaries. A two-value boundary value analysis uses two values for each boundary, one representing the valid value and one representing the invalid value. For example, if the valid range of values is from 4 to 7, then the two values for the lower boundary are 3 and 4, and the two values for the upper boundary are 7 and 8. The test cases in option D use these values for the password length, while also satisfying the other requirements of the password, such as containing at least one numeric character, one capital letter, and one lowercase letter. The test cases in option D are:
* 1RhT: a 4-character password that is valid
* rSp53: a 5-character password that is valid
* 3N3e10: a 6-character password that is valid
* 8sBdby: an 8-character password that is invalid The test cases in the other options are incorrect, because they either use values that are not at the boundaries of the password length, or they do not meet the other requirements of the password. For example, the test cases in option A are:
* 1xA: a 3-character password that is invalid, but it does not contain a capital letter
* aB11: a 4-character password that is valid
* Pq1ZZab: a 7-character password that is valid
* 7iDD0a1x: an 8-character password that is invalid References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design Techniques1
* ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partition2
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?
- A. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort
- B. A test leader writes a test summary report
- C. A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment
- D. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release
Answer: D
Explanation:
* The question is about identifying an example of testing contributing to higher quality. Quality is the degree to which a component, system or process meets specified requirements and/or user/customer needs and expectations1. Testing is the process consisting of all lifecycle activities, both static and dynamic, concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of software products and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects2.
* Therefore, testing contributes to higher quality by verifying and validating that the software products and related work products meet the specified requirements, are fit for purpose and have no defects, or at least have a reduced number of defects. Testing also provides information about the quality of the software products and related work products to the stakeholders, who can make informed decisions based on the test results3.
* Out of the four given statements, only option D is an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it shows that testing has detected a defect (a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function4) and that the defect has been resolved
* (fixed and confirmed) prior to release (delivery of the software product to the customer or end user).
This means that testing has prevented a potential failure (an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits) from occurring in the operational environment, and thus has improved the quality of the software product.
* Option A is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a reporting activity that summarizes the test results and evaluates the test objectives, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test summary report is a document that records and communicates the outcomes of testing activities, including test completion criteria, test results, incident reports, test summary and evaluation, and lessons learned.
* Option B is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a planning activity that estimates the resources and time needed for testing activities, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test effort estimate is an approximation of the amount of work and/or the duration of time required to perform testing activities.
* Option C is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a preparation activity that sets up the test environment (an environment containing hardware, instrumentation, simulators, software tools, and other support elements needed to conduct a test), but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test environment installation is a process of installing and configuring the test environment according to the test environment specification.
References:
* 1: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 10
* 2: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 11
* 3: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 12
* 4: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 77
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 78
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 79
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 80
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 81
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 82
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 83
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 84
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 85
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 86
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 87
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 88
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 89
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 90
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 91
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 92
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 93
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 94
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 95
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 96
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 97
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 98
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 99
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 100
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 101
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 102
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 103
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 104
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 105
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 106
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 107
NEW QUESTION # 65
What is test oracle?
- A. The source for the actual results
- B. The source of input conditions
- C. The source of lest objectives
- D. The source of expected results
Answer: D
Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?
- A. BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.
- B. ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.
- C. Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.
- D. ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Test-Driven Development (TDD) emphasizes writing tests before code and includes refactoring as a key practice to improve both the tests and the code. This ensures that the codebase remains clean and maintainable.
The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 discusses TDD as a practice that includes writing tests first, coding to satisfy those tests, and then refactoring the code to improve its structure and readability while keeping the tests intact.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A possible risk of introducing test automation is:
- A. the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.
- B. the tool may create additional development dependencies.
- C. the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.
- D. the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
One possible risk of introducing test automation is that the selected tool may not be fit-for-purpose. This means that the tool might not meet the specific needs and requirements of the project, leading to inefficiencies and possibly failing to provide the expected benefits. It is crucial to evaluate and select the appropriate tool based on the project's context and objectives. The ISTQB CTFL syllabus highlights the importance of careful tool evaluation and selection to ensure it aligns with the testing goals and the development environment.
References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section 6.2, "Potential Benefits and Risks of Test Automation."
NEW QUESTION # 68
What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?
- A. Exploratory testing
- B. Integration testing
- C. Acceptance testing
- D. Structural testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Structural testing is a type of testing that measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Structural testing, also known as white-box testing or glass-box testing, is based on the internal structure, design, or implementation of the software. Structural testing aims to verify that the software meets the specified quality attributes, such as performance, security, reliability, or maintainability, by exercising the code paths, branches, statements, conditions, or data flows. Structural testing uses various coverage metrics, such as function coverage, line coverage, branch coverage, or statement coverage, to determine how much of the code has been tested and to identify any untested or unreachable parts of the code. Structural testing can be applied at any level of testing, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, or acceptance testing, but it is more commonly used at lower levels, where the testers have access to the source code.
The other options are not correct because they are not types of testing that measure their effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Acceptance testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software meets the acceptance criteria and the user requirements. Acceptance testing is usually performed by the end-users or customers, who may not have access to the source code or the technical details of the software. Acceptance testing is more concerned with the functionality, usability, or suitability of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. Integration testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software components or subsystems work together as expected. Integration testing is usually performed by the developers or testers, who may use both structural and functional testing techniques to check the interfaces, interactions, or dependencies between the components or subsystems. Integration testing is more concerned with the integration logic, data flow, or communication of the software, rather than its individual lines of code. Exploratory testing is a type of testing that involves simultaneous learning, test design, and test execution. Exploratory testing is usually performed by the testers, who use their creativity, intuition, or experience to explore the software and discover any defects, risks, or opportunities for improvement. Exploratory testing is more concerned with the behavior, quality, or value of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54; Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.4: Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle, Pages 11-13; Chapter 3: Static Testing, Section 3.4: Exploratory Testing, Pages 40-41.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?
- A. EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.
- B. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
- C. EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
- D. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Experience based techniques (EBT) are techniques that use the knowledge, intuition and skills of the test engineers to design and execute tests. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies, domains, applications or systems. EBT are not based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques, but rather on their personal judgment and creativity. EBT are not done as a second stage of testing, after non-experience-based testing took place, but rather as a complementary or alternative approach to other techniques. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in both testing and the application or technological domain, as this can help the test engineer identify potential risks, scenarios or defects. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 48-49.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is FALSE?
- A. The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities
- B. The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices.
- C. The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation
- D. The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a formal review process, the recorder's role is typically responsible for documenting the findings of the review team, including action items, decisions, and recommendations. This ensures that there is an accurate record of what was discussed and agreed upon, facilitating follow-up and continuous improvement. Therefore, statement C is correct as per the ISTQB CTFL syllabus.
NEW QUESTION # 71
After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive. Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is TRUE?
- A. Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing
- B. No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced.
- C. Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing.
- D. Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data migration testing is a critical part of maintenance testing during the decommissioning of a system. When a system is decommissioned, data often needs to be transferred to another system or archived securely. This process ensures that the data remains intact, accessible, and secure in its new location. Therefore, statement B is true as it aligns with the ISTQB CTFL syllabus guidelines on handling system decommissioning and data preservation.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file.
Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of
- A. Defect
- B. It is not a defect
- C. Failure
- D. Error
Answer: C
Explanation:
A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits. A failure is observable by the software users or other stakeholders. A failure is caused by one or more defects in the software. In this case, the software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of a failure, as it deviates from the stated requirement and affects the user experience. It is not a defect, which is a flaw in the softwarethat causes the failure. It is not an error, which is a human action that produces an incorrect result. It is not a non-defect, as it clearly violates a specified requirement. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 4.
NEW QUESTION # 73
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than
40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS
exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?
- A. TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€
- B. TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€
- C. TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€
- D. TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€, between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€. The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between 80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following statements describes regression testing?
I, Retesting of a fixed defect
II, Testing of an already tested program
III, Testing of new functionality in a program
IV, Regression testing applies only to functional testing
V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once
- A. I, III, IV
- B. II
- C. I, IV
- D. II, IV, V
Answer: B
Explanation:
Regression testing is the re-running of functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change1 It does not involve retesting of a fixed defect, testing of new functionality, or applying only to functional testing. Tests that are used for regression testing should be repeatable, because they are used to verify the stability of the software after each change2 Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, Page 291; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
NEW QUESTION # 75
A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.
The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:
Above 89, up to 100 - A
Above 79, up to 89 * B
Above 69, up to 79 * C
Above 59, up to 69 - D
Below 60- F
Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?
- A. 74, 79.84,85, 89
- B. 69, 79. 80, 89, 90
- C. 0, 58.59,70, 80
- D. 79, 89.90,99, 100
Answer: B
Explanation:
The set of test inputs that achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage for grading students is option D: 69, 79, 80, 89, 90. This set effectively tests the boundaries between each grade category, ensuring that the grading system accurately transitions from one grade to another at the correct thresholds (ISTQB Main Web).References:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 PDF
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?
- A. Regression testing
- B. Exploratory testing
- C. Metric based approach
- D. Requirements based testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Exploratory testing is suitable for a new project with little documentation and high probability for bugs, as it can help uncover unknown requirements, assumptions and risks. Exploratory testing is not requirements based testing, which is an approach to testing that derives test cases from documented requirements or specifications. Requirements based testing is not feasible for a new project with little documentation, as it requires clear and complete requirements to be available. Exploratory testing is not metric based approach, which is an approach to testing that uses quantitative measures to monitor and control the testing process and evaluate the quality of the software product. Metric based approach is not effective for a new project with high probability for bugs, as it may not capture all aspects of quality and may lead to false confidence or unrealistic expectations. Exploratory testing is not regression testing, which is an approach to testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes. Regression testing is not relevant for a new project with no previous versions or baselines. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Given the following state model of sales order software:
SEE ATTACHMENT
Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?
- A. IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
- B. IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
- C. PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
- D. PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
Answer: A
Explanation:
State transition testing is a black-box testing technique where test cases are designed to cover states and transitions of a state machine.
Given the state model with the following transitions:
* PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
* IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
* IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED
* SHIPPED -> INVOICED
* INVOICED -> CANCELLED
* CANCELLED -> PLACED
To cover all transitions at least once, we need to create a sequence that covers all six transitions.
Option A: IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED- Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.
Option B: IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION- Covers all transitions.
Option C: PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy)sses INVOICED -> CANCELLED transition.
Option D: PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED- Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.
Given these, Option B covers all the transitions6†source9†source.
References:
* Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
* 10 Sample Exams ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.
II Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
III Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
IV The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.
- A. I. Ill
- B. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. Decision tables are not related to risk level, but rather to complexity level. Decision tables are generated for test items that have complex logic or multiple conditions and actions that need to be tested.
- C. II. IV
- D. II. Ill
- E. I. IV
Answer: D
Explanation:
IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally. The conditions in the decision table represent both positive and negative tests, depending on whether they are valid or invalid inputs for the test item. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 42-43.
Explanation:
A decision table is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). The following statements about decision tables are true:
II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. Decision tables can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. Decision tables can help cover all possible combinations or scenarios in a systematic way.
III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. A column of a decision table represents a unique combination of condition entries and action entries. Several test cases can be selected for each column by varying other input values or expected results that are not part of the decision table. The following statements about decision tables are false:
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?
- A. Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program
- B. Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items
- C. Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents
- D. Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects
Answer: A
Explanation:
A dynamic analysis tool is a tool that performs analysis of a software product based on its behavior during execution. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor various aspects of a program's run-time performance, such as memory usage, CPU load, response time, or resource leaks. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program, which can help detect defects such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or memory corruption. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents, as this is a function of a test management tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects, as this is a function of a debugging tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items, as this is a function of a configuration management tool. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 6, page 56-57.
NEW QUESTION # 80
During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.
The team agreed on the following:
1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-large, and Extra-extra-large.
2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.
The result of the first round of planning poker:
Team MemberEstimation
BusinessLarge
DevelopmentExtra-extra-large
TestingExtra-extra-large
Which of the following options best represent the team's next actions?
- A. The pre-agreed rules state that the highest score should be used for estimation, resulting in the user story being categorised as Extra-extra-large.
- B. the team discusses the differences in the estimates and repeats the poker round until an agreemet is reached.
- C. The fact that all estimations are high indicate that the user story is not well understood or should be broken down into multiple smaller stories.
- D. Since the business representative is likely to have the most informed view of the requirement, the user story is categorised as a Large.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a planning poker session, if there is a significant difference in the estimations, it indicates that there may be misunderstandings or different perspectives on the complexity of the user story. According to the agile principles, the team should discuss these differences to reach a common understanding. The goal is to ensure that all team members have a shared understanding of the user story's scope and complexity before finalizing the estimate.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I) Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.
II) Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
III) Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
IV) The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.
- A. II, IV
- B. II, Ill
- C. I, IV
- D. I, Ill
Answer: B
Explanation:
A decision table is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). The following statements about decision tables are true:
II, Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. Decision tables can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. Decision tables can help cover all possible combinations or scenarios in a systematic way.
III, Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. A column of a decision table represents a unique combination of condition entries and action entries. Several test cases can be selected for each column by varying other input values or expected results that are not part of the decision table. The following statements about decision tables are false:
I, Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. Decision tables are not related to risk level, but rather to complexity level. Decision tables are generated for test items that have complex logic or multiple conditions and actions that need to be tested.
IV, The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally. The conditions in the decision table represent both positive and negative tests, depending on whether they are valid or invalid inputs for the test item. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 42-43.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?
- A. An inspection can be performed by peers.
- B. An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria
- C. An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.
- D. The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The following statement about inspection is not true:
B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true:
A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author. This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest.
C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product.
D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps: planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 83
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